EverettGriz said:
I think you’re asking the question backward, PR. It doesn’t really matter what the vendor’s company position is. If they desire the contract and the contract stipulates that vendors adhere to msu’s Policies, then that’s the way the contract is signed.
So I’ll answer your question this way: My Firm hires vendors. Everyone of them signs a contract that they will abide by my Firm’s policies. In addition, every contract employee at those vendors signs a disclosure statement every year that they understand our Firm’s policies and that they are in full compliance.
I'm no lawyer, but I dealt with them for decades in my "day job" and have in-laws who are lawyers (one was a judge, now retired, whom every defense attorney shopped around to avoid). For us, it worked two ways: We operated under a contract with the Federal government and agreed to comply with their policies (with all that that implies). In turn, we would subcontract with third parties for certain services (or goods, but that's probably not relevant here).
I think the point that PR (and others) is trying to make is that, when a subcontractor employee agreed to "comply with" our policies, that did not mean that we, the contract holder, had any right to go after that individual for his/her transgression. Keep in mind that, because of the Federal connection, we had some quite punitive contracts. Depending upon the wording of the contract, the subcontractor might lose the contract, pay fines, etc. But it was up to
them to punish the transgressor (usually meaning they got fired). Here where
neither individual involved is an employee of the "complainant," there is no way they have legal jurisdiction. To me, this is a prime example of the arrogance of the academic world, which considers itself a special, protected class.